0. Titled "Bell's theorem refuted: Einstein and locality prevail", my theory has been discussed at http://www.sciphysicsforums.com/spfbb1/ ... ?f=6&t=496
1. Therein I infer (in a commonsense notation against Bell 1964, and backed by many heuristics) to the following equation:
2. We need only refer to the middle and RH terms.
3. By private and public messages and backed by other Bellians, Richard Gill makes the following claim:
“(eq:5) is manifestly nonlocal. This is not about correlation versus causation. The probability of the A result, conditioned on the B result, and given both settings a and b, depends on the setting, b, in the other arm of the apparatus. Changing the b setting changes the probabilities on spacelike separated Alice's side. This is precisely what is called [after my edit for clarity] Gill-nonlocal."
4. As I see it, we have a matter of fact; one that might be found in any good book on conditional probability: "The probability of the A result, conditioned on the B result, and given both settings a and b, depends on the setting, b, in the other arm of the apparatus."
5. And then we have what appears to be a matter of total confusion: "Changing the b setting changes the probabilities on spacelike separated Alice's side."
6. In my view: since the probabilities on spacelike separated Alice's side are determined LOCALLY via Alice's setting a and the incoming local random variable
7. Since I am happy to address any and all serious objections directly, and since I am happy to propose any Bellian as a nominated referee, am I missing something here?
Thanks; Gordon
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